Question 11 of 15
Total questions in the exam: 15
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COMAT - Obstetrics/Gynecology Subject Practice Examination
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A 28-year-old nulliparous female presents to the office with the complaint of pelvic pain. Pregnancy test is positive; her FDLMP was 32 days ago. Ultrasound fails to demonstrate an intrauterine pregnancy, pelvic mass, or fluid in the cul-de-sac. The most appropriate test is